• Jo Miran ( JoMiran@lemmy.ml ) 
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    10 months ago

    In the US, Wyoming prostitutes gave women the right to vote. Because women were so scarce in the territory, they held a lot of power, political and economic. Wyoming women demanded the right to vote and hold office and the men ratified the right happily. When the US wanted Wyoming to join the union, Wyoming’s response was “not without our women”. So, that’s how Wyoming became the first state in the union to allow women citizens to vote.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women's_suffrage_in_Wyoming

  • Scipitie ( Scipitie@lemmy.dbzer0.com ) 
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    10 months ago

    Serious question even though I know if the answer isn’t “no one” it just sound stupid or loaded to people from these cultural circles:

    Who twists the history in a way to light voting rights for women as some kind of male achievement? Oo

    I mean I’ve heard of individual men being supportive but that word already implies them not being the drivers.

    I’m genuinely curious because with no exposure to that framing the post reads like ragebaiting - but it also might be justified rage I just wasn’t exposed to so far, if you get my drift.

  • jaselle ( jaselle@lemmy.ca ) 
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    10 months ago

    The sufragette movement pressured the government (men) to give women the right to vote. In what universe is this not an accurate description of what happened?

      • A good point! In London,

        1918 – Representation of the People Act This is effectively when universal male suffrage happened. All men aged 21+ could vote

        1928 – Equal Franchise Act Full equality: women could vote at 21+, the same as men.

        People keep making this a men vs women thing, but that’s a distraction. There is no war but the class war. Don’t let the owner class further divide the proletariat.

        Ok. Everybody can get back to meme’n now.

    • Washedupcynic ( Washedupcynic@lemmy.ca ) 
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      10 months ago

      This was done via state campaigns to change state law giving women in targeted state the right to vote. Once enough states had that right/law on the books it made federal constitutional amendment possible, without needing to lobby the federal government to give women the right.

          • jaselle ( jaselle@lemmy.ca ) 
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            10 months ago

            For me, you can’t use ‘give’ if there was no action on the giver’s behalf, but coerced action counts as action. Same with take – you ‘take’ something only if you’re capable of a ‘take’ action. So if you’re in a coma, you can’t ‘take’ anything offered to you (except in idiomatic phrases where action on the taker isn’t expected, e.g. “to take abuse”).

            This is why I seriously believe that OP’s image is controversial more do to a difference in our linguistic understanding of the word “give” than do to a differing understanding of the facts.

            Edit: I think what may be happening here is the so-called “non-central” fallacy.