• jaselle ( jaselle@lemmy.ca ) 
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    10 months ago

    The sufragette movement pressured the government (men) to give women the right to vote. In what universe is this not an accurate description of what happened?

      • A good point! In London,

        1918 – Representation of the People Act This is effectively when universal male suffrage happened. All men aged 21+ could vote

        1928 – Equal Franchise Act Full equality: women could vote at 21+, the same as men.

        People keep making this a men vs women thing, but that’s a distraction. There is no war but the class war. Don’t let the owner class further divide the proletariat.

        Ok. Everybody can get back to meme’n now.

    • Washedupcynic ( Washedupcynic@lemmy.ca ) 
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      10 months ago

      This was done via state campaigns to change state law giving women in targeted state the right to vote. Once enough states had that right/law on the books it made federal constitutional amendment possible, without needing to lobby the federal government to give women the right.

          • jaselle ( jaselle@lemmy.ca ) 
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            10 months ago

            For me, you can’t use ‘give’ if there was no action on the giver’s behalf, but coerced action counts as action. Same with take – you ‘take’ something only if you’re capable of a ‘take’ action. So if you’re in a coma, you can’t ‘take’ anything offered to you (except in idiomatic phrases where action on the taker isn’t expected, e.g. “to take abuse”).

            This is why I seriously believe that OP’s image is controversial more do to a difference in our linguistic understanding of the word “give” than do to a differing understanding of the facts.

            Edit: I think what may be happening here is the so-called “non-central” fallacy.